People i need your help, i am trying to come up with a good way to implement production from technological advances in my production model.
I have been looking at increased recovery rates for this but i am now at the point that i think that these numbers are totally off.
We have people saying that recovery rates are now around 35% worldwide(heard this from a variety of sources)
The increase would have been from around 22% in 1980 to 35% now.
As far as i understand reserves are calculated in this way:
(Technical) reserves = Oil initally in place * recovery rate
Reserves in 1980 were around 740 BB
Reserves in 2004 were around 1180 BB
In 1980 we ofcourse had discovered less oil then in 2004, this means that the OIIP (oil initally in place) was lower right?
Why is it then that:
1180 / 35 = 33.7
and
33.7 x 22 = 741
So by taking the recovery rate, reserves and OIIP of 2004 and translating that to a recovery rate of 22% (1980 number) we are getting the exact reserve number of 1980. Which should not be the case if i am correct.
Something smells fishy here, thus the economists were i got those numbers from seem to be calculating recovery rates in this way:
Recovery rate = (Technical) reserves / Oil initally in place
In that way it means that they are estimating world recovery rates by the reserves that are reported. Which means that since the reserves that are reported are totally flawed (Middle east reserve increases and no general accounting system) these recovery rates are also totally flawed and i cannot draw any conclusions on them......
So questions are:
Is my analysis correct?
How can i incorporate future technological oil production growth into a model?